Are Inhumane Police Tactics Preferable to Murder?
Mike Riggs | November 28, 2008, 2:27pm
In July I wrote about Nashville police injecting unruly suspects with Midazolam, a "strong sedative" that caused short-term amnesia. I suggested that it was a bad idea (and in general, I still think it's a bad idea), but then three weeks ago, two DC police officers shot David Kerstetter to death in his own bathroom. His death brings up some interesting questions about the use of force. Jason Cherkis, a colleague at Washington City Paper, has the details:
Two cops arrived—a rookie and a master patrol officer with more than 20 years on the job. They were greeted by the Iowa employee and led to Kerstetter’s condo.
The veteran officer, Frederick Friday, says the employee called up to Kerstetter, asking him if he could come upstairs. Friday says Kerstetter shouted back that he knew he was lying—that he was with the police and refused to let him upstairs.
The employee pleaded with Kerstetter some more. But it was no use. Eventually, Friday and his partner went inside. “We have to check—that’s our job,” Friday says. “Can’t just leave him.”...
Allegedly, Kerstetter was holding a knife when he met the two cops.
Kerstetter was shot multiple times, according to his mother, who cites the death certificate. He was taken to a hospital, where he was pronounced dead a short time later.
In the coming months, the department will investigate the circumstances surrounding Kerstetter’s death, though D.C. Police Chief Cathy Lanier has already told the Washington Post her people acted in self-defense. She did not return repeated calls seeking comment.
What’s unlikely to come out of the investigation, however, is the answer to this straightforward question: How did a man who seemed to pose no danger to anyone besides himself end up being killed by the police in his own bathroom?
According to a police press release, officers were forced to use lethal force after “a struggle ensued.” The shooting occurred after officers “repeatedly ordered the man to drop the weapon.”
There's no doubt that Kerstetter had mental problems that made him unstable, if not dangerous (he suffered from bipolar disorder and extreme paranoia, seldom took his medication, and had a history of meth addiction), but there's also evidence—enough to spark a rigorous MPD Internal Affairs investigation—that the responding officers didn't make an adequate effort to engage Kerstetter before resorting to lethal force: the officers didn't suffer any injuries, nor were their clothes torn; the glass door leading into the bathroom wasn't damaged, nor was the vase that was on the floor just inside the door. Yet Kersetter, emaciated, half-naked, and armed with only a kitchen knife, was shot to death in a confined area.
D.C. has a poor record of responding to people with mental disorders (the day after Kerstetter's death, the Department of Mental Health sent a memo that it had been sitting on to the MPD detailing appropriate responses to mentally-ill suspects), so here's my question: If police officers find themselves face to face with a potentially dangerous and mentally unstable citizen, are inhumane methods for restraint preferable to lethal force? (For the sake of this particular thought experiment, let's pretend that police don't regularly abuse tools such as tasers, batons, etc., etc.)
J sub D | November 28, 2008, 4:25pm | #
If I had to make a choice, non-lethal beats lethal, no contest.
Some here may have noticed that I don't exactly side with the cops all of the time. ;-)
I'm not sure these guys did anything wrong.
If they had a taser, that should have been tried first, but the facts are bit sketchy to go tossing blame around.
They call for the mental health folks, and the guy kills himself while they're waiting? Not good, we start blaming cops for being timid.
They go after the armed guy with batons in an enclosed space and a cop gets knifed? Even worse. We then blame the cops for placing themselves in unnecessary danger with their cowboy attitude.
They don't carry knockout gas and mace has limited range and won't necessarily stop a crazed individual, it
may be the worst thing to do in that case. We, and the cops, just don't know.
This case and many other similar ones should instead lead to an examination of de-institutionalization the seriously mentally ill. Walk the streets of a major city for a couple of hours and you can't count the the number of folks "who should be locked up" on your fingers. The quandaries raised when considering the treatment of the mentally ill makes me feel a tad bit humble.
Would the guy have been better off, would we as a society been helping him, by placing him in a secure mental health facility and treating his illness rather than let hin exercise his rights as a free adult to be left alone?
I have questions galore but the answers are in short supply.
Paul | November 28, 2008, 7:43pm | #
OK, I'll bite. What laws?
You're kidding, right? You actually believe that all entrances onto private property by police personnel must be accompanied by a warrant?
This could have
easily fallen under the umbrella of a welfare check. Especially if the mother requested it.
What it sounds like you're trying to conflate is the ability of law enforcement to enter the premisis on the basis that there may have been a crime committed, and where police enter the premisis on the same pretext, but end up arresting the occupants because when they do come in, they found a joint in the ashtray.
The laws will make distinctions about arresting someone on the premise of non-related criminal activity due to searches in plain sight and lack of warrants, etc. But that's not what we're talking about here.
What we're talking about here is a case where an agent of the building's owner (maintenance guy) found a door kicked in and requested a check by police.
One would certainly hope that police would enter a home if being held hostage after a home invasion robbery, and the 'perp' was yelling down "Nnnoope, nothing wrong here, nothing to see here, please go away!".
Had these police performed this check and then arrested Kerstetter because after entering, they found a dime bag of marijuana sitting on his kitchen table, then this conversation would be entirely different.
We have no idea how the man responded, what he said exactly, and what subtle circumstantial evidence there was for police to be concerned or suspect something was amiss, and hence entered the property.
Who cares what his reputation is within his own family?
*rubbing temples*
You do realize that many a CDMHP visit (with cops in tow) is very often referred by either a family member or... an apartment manager or some such thing? Again, it seems that you're insisting that the police were acting as if they were going to arrest Kerstetter before they even arrived at the scene. Is there any evidence of this?
Fluffy raises a good point about why the cops were in the house in the first place.
No he doesn't. He merely questions the evidence that brought the police into the house and based on a rather thin description of the circumstances, leads him to believe that the police can't enter private property without a warrant unless there's clear evidence of ongoing criminal activity.
prolefeed | November 30, 2008, 4:12pm | #
J sub D --
Yer answers:
What percentage of those in prison would you guesstimate are insane? I'm not speaking of the merely mentally ill because most of humanity is mentally ill to some extent, but insane.
Depends on how you define "insane" versus "mentally ill" versus "normal". Plenty of people are crazy about some stuff and well-grounded otherwise -- invite some Mormon missionaries in your house and feign interest about J. Smith, but then also ask them their views on the proper fiscal role of government. First part batshit insane, second part generally more libertarian than average.
And liberals tend to think libertarians hold crazy, whackjob notions about the proper role of government.
Can we determine insanoty prior to the commision of a crime?
Yes, once the definition of insanity is pinned down. Some people are clearly out of touch with reality, yet haven't committed a crime. Some may continue to be crazy and never commit serious crimes. Some people who are not crazy commit serious crimes.
Is it moral to imprison (a mental facility is a prison if you can't leave) the insane?
Yes, if they have committed acts that have harmed, or seriously elevated the probability of harming (such as drunk driving), others. Otherwise, no.
Most would agree that quarantine is justified for those with infectious disease (typhoid, smallpox if it ever rears its ugly head again, polio) because they pose an unreasonable danger to others through no fault of their own
Would not the same reasoning apply to the possibly violent or destructive insane?
Not entirely comparable situations. If you have a highly infectious disease such as typhoid, and take steps to essentially quarantine yourself, such as confining yourself to the grounds of your house and avoiding contact with others, then no government action should be taken. If you refuse to take all the actions to prevent the spread of these diseases, then your actions significantly endanger others and steps to stop that endangerment are morally justified.
But, how would you know that someone is "possibly" violent or destructive if they haven't in fact done any acts that are actually violent or destructive or significantly endanger others? I believe the movie "Minority Report" addresses this notion of suppressing "future crime". I believe much of the WoD is predicated on this notion of "possibly".
I realize that that would be pre-emptive punishment (treatment?) which is an anathema to most here.
And rightfully so.
Even if we wait until the insane individual commits a crime, say assault which normally garners the offender less than a year, can we place the person in a mental facility until "cured" or no longer a danger, far longer than your garden variety punk?
This is a matter of having laws on the books that allow appropriate discretion in sentencing and paroling that takes into account the probability that someone who has harmed others will continue to harm others if released back into society -- whether they have formed the recognizance of the wrongness of their acts so as to prevent reoccurrances -- admittedly a tricky thing to get even approximately right. If the problem is that garden variety punks are being released despite intending to continue to harm others, then the appropriate remedy is to not release the punks prematurely, rather than seeking a distorted view of "justice" by also releasing people incapable for other reasons of not repeating their harmful acts.
Does any of this relate to pedophiles and rapists?
Obviously it does. The overall question is how to restrain people who have committed harm to others from continuing to do so, and discouraging others from acting similarly, in a manner that accomplishes that purpose while minimizing unnecessary and counterproductive losses of liberty of the perpetrators.
As a casual review of Radley Balko's blogs would reveal, our various levels of government fall
*somewhat* short of optimizing that libertarian approach toward implementing the NIOF principle.
deluded1 | December 1, 2008, 10:46am | #
Several readily available issues from the article not mentioned in H&R comments:
1. Veteran officer on scene had prevented Kerstetter from committing suicide a year prior. (exhaust from his van, hose in the window)
2. Kerstetter had threatened to kill himself and others on numerous occasions in the past
3. Police department had responded to numerous assault and suicide calls at the residence (apparently his partner and he got into lots of physical altercations)
I dislike pigs, but from the verifiable information on the article, I don't see the officers at fault, especially since the initial call from the mother initiated a welfare check by the maintenance guy. Police who knew Kerstetter reported to a break in call at his residence. They talked to him, but would not allow him to come up. Knowing his history with attempted suicide, made the decision to investigate after calling for support (psychiatrist, case worker)for 20 minutes. Kerstetter, a Gulf War vet, was brandishing a knife (butter, combat, who knows?). Seems like the vet decided to talk him down. Kerstetter threatened suicide, then the cops either shot him for no reason, or he charged for death by cop. Note that he failed several previous suicide attempts.
So yes, police officers escalated the violence level by entering the home. However, given the history, shouldn't they have at least checked on him? Then seeing him about to do the deed, talk him down?
That being said, non-violent should always be chosen were applicable, but the previous posts regarding 21 ft make me curious. If I can't pull a gun in 21 ft, how could I be expected to tase or baton a guy in 21 ft? Doesn't that basically mean police would have to shoot anything threatening them with a bladed weapon within a 21 ft radius?