Taxes, Patriotism, and Just Plain Goofiness
Brian Doherty | July 5, 2007, 2:51pm
On this patriotic week, Sheldon Richman lays out why he thinks the tax protest/tax honesty/tax denial movement is more deluded than patriotic. And no one hates the income tax as much as Sheldon Richman does.
My own May 2004 reason feature article on the movement.
libertreee | July 5, 2007, 7:13pm | #
Mr Richmond takes an extreme anarchist position (one that I sympathize with) that all taxes are evil, and then refuses to look at distinctions that apply to the less extreme example, that their are legitimate constitutional issues surrounding the income tax code, the 16Amendment, etc.
This is unfortunate, because he is engaged in hand wringing and ostracizes sincere people
over issues that could bring discredit to the government and resound in the favor of liberty. He sees "only harm [to} true efforts to achieve liberty". Why?
Does he feel the same way about the government's refusal to strike down the ridiculous legal casuistry surrounding the marijuana laws, including Gonzalez v Raich? Of course not, like all libertarians, he is outraged at the refusal of the state to accept his views on drug laws, and the ridiculous interpretation it gives to the commerce clause.
Yet, when it comes to the income tax, he, like a lot of other comfortable libertarians, is more ready to adopt the government's inconsistencies and obfuscations as holy writ, descended from Sinai!
Could it be that he can smoke his pot in the comfort of his own home in Colorado (I believe) without too much fear of anyone breaking down his door, but in fact if he does challenge the IRS, he is deadly afraid that he might lose some property? A writer of his stature, it must be said, might even be sent to jail.
So, comfortable libertarians with a high profile are quite happy to rail against pot laws which they are quite convinced the government lies about constantly, but they are not so willing to stand up to a trillion dollar legal fraud that might cause them some legal difficulties.
OK. I get it.
libertreee | July 5, 2007, 8:40pm | #
Reply to Mr. Richmond re Income Tax Laws
Mr Richmond writes that the tax honesty movement (he calls it tax denial) has obvious flaws, and will hurt the cause of liberty.
I would like to point out some flaws in his reasoning, and his conclusion.
• 1) The Government has no Constitutional authority to tax wages and salaries.
This is a simplification. The government under the 16th Amendment can tax some wages, if they are excise taxable. Also, the government can tax some wages, but not under the 16th Amendment, if they are foreign earned, or earned within the US by non-resident aliens. The relevant clause here is US Constitution, Art. 1, sec 8, re the Congress’ exclusive jurisdiction over Washington DC, and the territories. See also Article IV, Sec 3.
However, the national government does lack the authority to tax the wages of Americans earned in the 50 states. However, if those Americans voluntarily assess themselves an income tax, and submit it to the Government under penalty of perjury, they become subject to possible Deficiencies and Collections, even if they were not originally liable, and did not realize they were not liable.
• Then he says the courts have looked unfavorably on the arguments, and have put people in prison. But, the courts have looked unfavorably on a lot of liberty oriented arguments, and people have gone to prison on account of bad court decisions, and do everyday in this country. Why the libertarian pass on the income tax issue?
• Then he declares his libertarian bone fides, he is against all taxes, blah blah blah. But, something about the income tax makes him believe that the government, in this one case, is telling the truth…
• But of course that doesn’t mean the income tax is not illegal, no sir. The government, he assures us again in the next paragraph, is certainly telling the truth in this instance.
• The courts have held that Congress has the power to tax anything, including wages and salaries….. OK, Mr Richmond. I am a Chinaman, living in China. I work in a Chinese factory, and I am a Chinese citizen. Can Congress tax my wages? No, OK, then we have determined that the taxing power of Congress does have some limitations. The power of Congress to tax does not extend to the entire planet. Just wanted to make sure we agree on that.
• With the very next sentence, Mr. Richmond then says that yes, indeed, the Congress does have some kind of “presumed rule”. What exactly, is that presumed rule?
Article 1, sec 2 : Representatives and Direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States.
So, a direct tax must be apportioned among the States. What exactly is a direct tax? Mr Richmond refuses to explain, saying only that it is a presumed rule.
• Never mind, anyway, because the Sixteenth Amendment fixed all that fussing over what is or is not a direct tax.
Maybe Mr Richmond has never written the IRS, never mind file a Freedom of Information Act with them, but I have done both. And, the IRS says that its authority to tax incomes is the Supreme Court Case Brushaber vs Union Pacific, which held the Income Tax of 1913 Constitutional.
• But, what did Brushaber say?
The Sixteenth Amendment:
1. gave the government no new taxing power.
2. did not NOT overturn Pollock, the decision that stated that a tax on income is a direct tax that must be apportioned.
3. It established that an income tax could be an excise tax
4. It forbade the levying of income taxes on “sources of income” without apportionment.
• Mr Richmond then says that tax “deniers” quote Supreme Court decisions out of context. But, he admits that the Supreme Court cases that are cited did relate to the Income Tax Act of 1913. Did that Act then impose a tax on wages?
• Mr Richmond admits that the word “income” is not in the “income tax code” which is what he provides spurious links to as his authority. (That is patently ridiculous, and demeaning to any intelligent person. The question is not what TITLE authorizes the taxation in question, but WHAT LAW. Even further, courts have ruled that the general language of STATUTES does not impose any liability on a citizen, but only REGULATIONS do. Tax honesty researchers also look to the FEDERAL REGISTER for information as to what the IRS can and cannot legally do, as well as IRS INTERNAL MANUALS including its computer codes. So, by linking to Title 26 as maintained by Cornell University as the law that determines Americans are liable to a tax on wages MR Richmond is being sophomoric and frankly, stupid.)
• Mr Richmond then expounds on why he thinks the word “Income” is not defined in the Code he links us to. But, all his expositions cannot hide the fact that the Supreme Court has already given us the answer as to why the word “income” is not defined in the code.
The Supreme Court states in Eisner v Macomber, 252 US 189, decided in March, 1920, that Congress “cannot by any definition it may adopt conclude the matter (ie, what is income, ed.) since it cannot by legislation alter the Constitution, from which it alone derives its power to legislate, and within whose limitations alone that power can be lawfully exercised. (emphasis added).
The Supreme Court said that Congress cannot define income. If it could, everytime it passed an income tax law, it could be amending the Constitution, because Congress itself put the word income into the Constitution.
• The Supreme Court then defined “income” for good and all, in Merchants Loan and Trust vs Smietanka, 255 US 509.
In that final case defining income, the Court said that income has the same meaning in the Tax Act of 1913 as it had in the Corporate Tax Act of 1909, as well as the Income Tax Acts of 1916 and 1917.
What was the meaning of Income in all these Acts? A corporate profit. That is how “income” is separated from its “source” : by being the final entry in a corporate ledger showing net profit!.
The Supreme Court may smirk and issue irrelevant dicta, but so far, it has never, ever overturned Pollock, or these income tax cases dating to the early 1920’s.
• Yes, there are other instances of income that can be taxed, including some wages. But then we have to get into geographical jurisdiction, non resident alien income, and foreign earned income. I do not have the time here. Suffice it to say that this taxation does not come under the 16th Amendment, and does not affect the true legal obligation of most Americans NOT to pay income tax, unless they VOLUNTARILY want to.
libertreee | July 5, 2007, 11:26pm | #
An income tax is really a tax on a transaction, and as such can be construed as direct on the payor or indirect on the payee, or vice versa, so the direct-indirect dichotomy was never really operative on that kind of a tax.
There is some sense in which income is a privileged transaction. In that case, income can be taxed as a transaction. An excise tax is a tax on a "privelege". Some occupations are indeed "privileged". These are occupations that require a federal license. The return for these income taxes are filed on the Federal Form 720, the Quarterly Excise Tax Form.
Another privelege is to be the tax collector for a corporation. This trustee collects the taxes of the corporation and forwards them to the US. These forms for the trustee begin with the number 9, eg 940....
If the individuals in these cases do not submit the money for their privileged occupation or duty, there is a specific delegation of authority in the Federal Register that says an IRS agent can Substitute a Return for them and they are liable for the tax.
There is no such Delegation of Authority for the Form 1040. So, if you are a NONFILER, a NONTAXPAYER, an individual who does not forward a return because he has no liability, it is up to the IRS to prove your liability. You have not self assessed, but you have stood on your Fifth and Fourth Amendment Rights not to be a witness against yourself, and not to obey a rule or regulation that does not apply to you.
I am not saying judges are not corrupt. They are. They do work for the state. They do not work directly for the individual but for the state. Bias is not unusual. However, bias against the drug user is certainly not unusual either. Courts have denied what any reasonable person would say is due process against both nonfilers and drug users.
Why are prominent libertarians then drawing a false line in the sand, pro drug user, anti nonfiler?
Richmond says because the argument that their is no law requiring you to pay is false. However, he does not produce the law. He only links, insultingly, to the entire title. And, he defers to authority, the courts that are corrupt in both types of cases. And, he refuses the Supreme Court ruling authorities that tackled the NATURE of the tax.
Why?