Scopes II Monkey Trial Decided The Right Way This Time
Ronald Bailey | December 20, 2005, 1:56pm
In the original Scopes Monkey Trial, high school teacher John Scopes was found guilty of teaching evolution. This time the modern day creationists are found guilty of teaching religion.
U.S. District Court Judge John E. Jones III has issued a 139-page opinion ruling:
"The citizens of the Dover area were poorly served by the members of the board who voted for the ID policy."
Judge Jones also finds that the good Christians on the Dover school board are liars. To wit:
"It is ironic that several of these individuals, who so staunchly and proudly touted their religious convictions in public, would time and again lie to cover their tracks and disguise the real purpose behind the ID Policy."
And he concludes:
"We find that the secular purposes claimed by the board amount to a pretext for the board's real purpose, which was to promote religion in the public school classroom....Our conclusion today is that it is unconstitutional to teach ID as an alternative to evolution in a public school science classroom."
Larry Hastings | December 20, 2005, 7:39pm | #
For a purportedly-big-L Libertarian message board, I'm surprised nobody has trotted out the big-L talking points here. So I'll step up to the plate.
I disagree with the ruling, because I don't see how this is a Constitutional issue, nor do I see why the Federal Government should be involved. The First Amendment says "Congress shall make no law"; it doesn't address itself to the states. (And, given that other amendments
do make restrictions on the states, we can assume this was intentional.) If I recall correctly, public education is run by the states, though they get money (and regulation) from the USG. If the case had been about a Federal law requiring schools to teach ID, the First Amendment would have been relevant. But this case concerned a school board in Pennsylvania--it's hard to see how a case could get more local than that. Why is the Federal government involved here? What does the Constitution have to do with it?
Then again, the other facet to the big-L view is that public education is an abomination and should be abolished immediately. Discussions about whether or not ID belongs in a science class are a symptom of the one-size-fits-all educational system we have in this country. In a big-L society,
all schools would be private, and you could choose what school to send your kids to from an open market in education. We'd surely have religious high schools that taught ID, and non-religious colleges refusing to accept their hapless sabotaged students.
How's that?
larry
p.s. For the record, I am pro-science and anti-ID. Like Roe v. Wade, I am happy about the outcome of this ruling, but I think the ruling itself is seriously flawed.
Larry Hastings | December 21, 2005, 12:05am | #
Ayn_Randian: Sure, no problem.
Section 1 of the Fourteenth Amendment does come close, I will admit. The only section I see as being relevant is "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States"; I don't think the "due process" or "equal protection" are at all relevant. (I can expand on that notion if you like.)
Therefore the question becomes: what "privileges or immunities" are these? Again, with my strictest constitutionalist hat on, they would be those explicitly spelled stated in the Constitution. For instance, a State couldn't pass a law abrogating the Third Amendment (quartering soldiers) or the Fourth Amendment (unreasonable search and seizure). Those Amendments specify rights of the people.
However, the First Amendment specifies things which
Congress may not do. The Fourteenth Amendment makes statements about what States may do with respect to the people's rights. So I don't see it as germane to the First.
And yeah, I realize I'm out on a limb here. Any reasonable person would say "the
intent of the First was that people have the right to free press &c, and the intent of the Tenth Amendment was to protect rights that weren't explicitly spelled out. So the Fourteenth Amendment says that states must honor those rights." I agree, that does seem to be the intent. But I feel that a strict,
literal interpretation of the Constitution is fundamental to procuring and maintaining our freedom. Start talking about "intent" and "penumbras" and pretty soon you can justify Federal agents destroying a woman's private crop of medical marijuana using the Commerce Clause.
"Intent" is in the eye of the beholder,
larry
Ayn_Randian | December 21, 2005, 12:21am | #
See, Larry, I read almost all of the amendments as things the government can't do, especially, per your example, the third:
" No soldier shall, etc." seems to be a limitation by the government NOT to do something
And the fourth, which I will quote more fully: "The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall
not be violated, and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
Yes, the fourth starts with the rights of the people, but these were considered automatic, I read this amendment as something the government cannot do , with the relevant areas in bold.
I read all these things that the government can't do as extended to the states by the Fourteenth. Although it may not be the strictest (I am no scholar), it seems to be a reasonable interpretation. Although I understand that interpretation is not your thing.